Question 1
Multiple ChoiceWhich of the following best describes the role of a derivative in financial markets?
Explanation
A derivative is a financial contract whose value is derived from the performance of an underlying asset, index, rate, or event. Rather than mirroring or passing through the exact return of the underlying, a derivative transforms that performance through contractual features such as leverage, expiration dates, or conditional payoffs.
Examples include futures, options, and swaps, which allow investors to gain exposure, hedge risk, or speculate in ways that differ significantly from directly holding the asset.
Question 2
Multiple ChoiceRheintal Systems GmbH is a German robotics firm that manufactures its products domestically and exports to international clients. The firm recently signed a commercial contract with MinsuTech Co., a Korean distributor, under the following terms:
Delivery: 60 days from the contract date
Payment: KRW500,000,000 due on the delivery date
Delivery Terms: FOB, Incheon Port
All production costs are in EUR
Rheintal’s Treasury manager is evaluating ways to manage the financial risk associated with this cross-border transaction.
Which of the following best explains why Rheintal Systems should use a derivative rather than a spot market transaction to manage this risk?
Explanation
The main risk Rheintal faces is the currency mismatch and timing gap—it will receive KRW in 60 days, but its costs are in EUR. Using a spot transaction today wouldn’t help because the payment isn’t received yet. Instead, a derivative, such as a forward contract, allows the company to lock in the KRW/EUR rate today for settlement in 60 days. This hedges against the risk that KRW may depreciate, reducing the EUR value of the future payment.
Question 3
Multiple ChoiceValken Technik GmbH, a German industrial equipment exporter, signs a contract to deliver a CNC milling unit to Daesung Solutions in South Korea. Payment of KRW720,000,000 is due 80 days from contract signing, and Valken incurs its production costs in EUR. The Treasury manager must hedge the foreign exchange risk associated with this cross-border transaction.
Which of the following derivatives and underlyings would best hedge Valken’s exposure?
Explanation
Valken Technik is exposed to currency risk because it will receive KRW in 80 days but must convert it into EUR to cover euro-denominated production costs. To hedge this exposure, the most effective tool is a firm commitment derivative (such as a forward contract) where Valken agrees to sell KRW at a pre-agreed EUR rate on the future payment date.
Option B is incorrect because the machine’s price is not an eligible underlying for a standard derivative. Option C is incorrect because selling EUR for KRW hedges the opposite exposure (e.g., if Valken had to pay KRW, not receive it).
Question 4
Multiple ChoiceWhich of the following derivative contracts is best classified as a contingent claim?
Explanation
Contingent claims are derivatives where the payoff depends on a specific event or decision made by one of the counterparties—typically the holder of the contract. An option contract is the most common example of a contingent claim, as it gives the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to buy or sell an underlying asset at a predetermined price. The seller of the option must fulfill the contract only if the buyer exercises it.
In contrast, swaps and forwards are examples of firm commitments—they require both parties to perform under the contract terms at a future date, regardless of market conditions.
Question 5
Multiple ChoiceWhich of the following derivatives is least likely to be classified as a contingent claim?
Explanation
A futures contract is a type of forward commitment, not a contingent claim. It obligates both parties to execute the trade at a set future date and price, regardless of market conditions. There is no optionality involved—both counterparties must fulfill the contract terms.
In contrast, call options are classic contingent claims because the buyer has the right, but not the obligation, to exercise the contract. Similarly, credit default swaps (CDS) are also contingent claims, as the protection seller is only obligated to pay if a credit event (e.g., default) occurs with respect to the reference entity.
Question 6
Multiple ChoiceAventis Maschinenbau GmbH, a German machinery exporter, signs a contract to sell equipment to a Korean client, with payment of KRW800,000,000 due in 65 days. Aventis wants to hedge the currency risk tied to this specific timing and amount.
Which of the following statements best describes the most appropriate derivative market for this hedge?
Explanation
The over-the-counter (OTC) market is best suited for hedging non-standard exposures, such as the KRW800 million receivable due in exactly 65 days. In the OTC market, Aventis can customize the contract's notional amount, currency pair, and maturity date to precisely match the commercial contract terms.
By contrast, exchange-traded derivatives (ETD) are standardized in terms of contract size and expiration cycles (e.g., monthly), making them less flexible for specific hedging needs. While ETD contracts offer transparency and liquidity, they are generally less effective when the hedge requires customization—which is why C is also incorrect.
Question 7
Multiple ChoiceCompared to over-the-counter (OTC) options, futures contracts are most accurately described as:
Explanation
Futures contracts are standardized agreements traded on organized exchanges and are backed by clearinghouses, which guarantee performance and thus eliminate counterparty default risk. In contrast, OTC options are custom contracts between two parties and do carry default risk unless collateralized.
Futures require both parties to fulfill the contract, making them obligations, not rights. On the other hand, options give the buyer the right but not the obligation to buy or sell the underlying asset.
Question 8
Multiple ChoiceMontau AG enters into a centrally cleared over-the-counter (OTC) derivative contract to hedge currency risk related to a future Korean won (KRW) payment. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the credit risk in this arrangement?
Explanation
In a centrally cleared OTC derivative, a central counterparty (CCP) stands between all counterparties, becoming the buyer to every seller and the seller to every buyer. This eliminates direct counterparty exposure between Montau and the other party.
Instead, Montau’s credit risk is now assumed by the CCP, which manages it using margin requirements and daily mark-to-market settlements. However, Montau itself also becomes a credit risk to the CCP, since Montau may default on its payment or margin obligations. The CCP does not expose individual derivative users to each other’s credit risk, making option incorrect.
Question 9
Multiple ChoiceUnder the CFA Institute Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct, which of the following actions is most consistent with a member's duty to preserve confidentiality?
Explanation
Members and candidates must maintain the confidentiality of client information unless the information concerns illegal activities, disclosure is required by law, or the client permits disclosure. Providing information to regulators during an investigation is allowed under the Standards. Sharing or using client data without consent outside these exceptions violates the confidentiality obligation.